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Permalink Reply by Rick Taylor on May 7, 2012 at 3:51pm The above proof can't work, because f_xy is not always equal to f_yx. You need an additional assumption. For example, if f_xy and f_yx are both continuous functions in an open set, then f_xy=f_yx is true on the set (weaker assumptions are possible).
The usual proof considers the limit as both h and k go to zero of f(a+h,b+h) -f(a,b+h)-f(a+h,b)+f(a,b), and shows that this limit is equal to both f_xy(a,b) and f_yx(a,b). It uses the assumption various partial derivatives are continuous, and the mean value theorem.
Permalink Reply by Rick Taylor on May 8, 2012 at 10:47am Does someone have a link with instructions on how to include subscripts, deltas, and other nice math notation in one's reply? I could write out a proof of f_xy=f_yx (assuming continuity of the derivatives) if I knew how to do that.
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